Does it now? WHY is total number of deaths vs total population ->
not a good way (as good as any other) for figuring the odds of a person in the US of dying from the virus.
I "get" that the metric changes with age, location, pre-existing condition etc, but the overall number is the overall odds it seems to me.
You can (and maybe even should) factor in deaths only with confirmed cases, but that is a different metric.
What about total population vs total number of cases? Again, there are variables, but why is that not a way for me to figure odds of actually contracting th virus.
I asked and posted it that way, and posed it as a question to get a legit answer, NIT to be put down as stupid or pushing some agenda...but thanks anyway! Maybe someone else will help me understand all these numbers floating around!
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In response to this post by AbsolutVT03)
Posted: 07/08/2020 at 6:51PM